/u/[deleted]'s posts in /r/askhistorians
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[Egypt] What was Akhenaten trying to achieve with his religious reforms? Was he a religious zealot, or using religion to centralize power, or something else entirely?
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When & why did European intellectuals start favoring their native languages over Latin in their writings?
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Are there records of bad humour of individuals in medieval times or even in antiquity? Can you provide examples?
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I heard amaranth was basically THE staple crop of the Aztecs and then it got banned by the Spaniards only to finally be revitalized in the 1970s. Were the Spaniards really that successful in their outlawing? What was the status of the crop for those four centuries in between?
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